USMLE Step 1 → Microbiology
Microbiology for USMLE Step 1
Microbiology accounts for roughly 10% of the USMLE Step 1 blueprint.
This bank has 5 items tagged to it.
How much of USMLE Step 1 is microbiology?
Around 10% of the paper, per USMLE Content Outline and Specifications. That weighting is why the
DocPasser mock builder samples sections in proportion rather than shuffling everything into one pile —
practising a flat distribution trains you for a paper that does not exist.
Sample microbiology questions
A 22-year-old college student has a 3-week history of fatigue, sore throat and fever. Examination shows posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, exudative pharyngitis and splenomegaly. He is given amoxicillin and develops a diffuse maculopapular rash.
Which cell does the causative organism primarily infect?
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B lymphocytes, via CD21 correct
Correct. Epstein–Barr virus enters B cells through CD21 (complement receptor CR2). The atypical lymphocytes on the smear are reactive CYTOTOXIC T CELLS responding to those infected B cells, a distinction examiners test relentlessly.
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Hepatocytes
EBV commonly causes a mild transaminitis, but hepatocytes are not the primary target cell.
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Respiratory epithelial cells only
EBV does replicate in oropharyngeal epithelium, but the defining tropism and the reason for the lymphoproliferative picture is B cell infection.
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CD4+ T lymphocytes, via gp120
That is HIV. Acute retroviral syndrome can mimic mononucleosis, but it would not produce the amoxicillin rash.
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Neutrophils
Not an EBV reservoir. The hematologic picture in mononucleosis is lymphocytosis, not neutrophilia.
The point: EBV infects B cells via CD21; atypical lymphocytes are reactive T cells. Ampicillin or amoxicillin rash is close to pathognomonic. Avoid contact sports for at least three weeks because of splenic rupture risk.
Source: USMLE Content Outline — microbiology NBME / FSMB (USMLE programme) · tier 0, exam blueprint / regulator
A 34-year-old woman is treated with ceftriaxone for pyelonephritis. Cultures grow a Gram-negative rod that is resistant to ceftriaxone and cefotaxime but susceptible to meropenem. The organism produces an enzyme that hydrolyzes the beta-lactam ring of extended-spectrum cephalosporins, and this enzyme is inhibited by clavulanic acid.
Which resistance mechanism is described?
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Efflux pump upregulation
Actively exports the drug. Again, not enzymatic and not inhibited by clavulanate.
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Carbapenemase production
Would confer meropenem resistance, which the stem excludes. Carbapenemases such as KPC and NDM are the step beyond ESBL.
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Porin channel loss reducing drug entry
A real mechanism in Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter, but it reduces entry of many agents non-selectively and is not reversed by clavulanate.
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Extended-spectrum beta-lactamase production correct
Correct. ESBLs hydrolyze penicillins and extended-spectrum cephalosporins, are inhibited by clavulanate, and are typically plasmid-encoded in Escherichia coli and Klebsiella. Carbapenems remain the reliable treatment.
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Alteration of penicillin-binding proteins
The mechanism in MRSA (mecA producing PBP2a) and in penicillin-resistant pneumococcus. It is not inhibited by clavulanate, because no enzyme is being blocked.
The point: Beta-lactam resistance sorts into four mechanisms: enzymatic destruction (beta-lactamase, ESBL, carbapenemase, AmpC), altered target (PBP changes in MRSA), reduced entry (porin loss), and efflux. The clavulanate clue points specifically at a serine beta-lactamase.
Source: USMLE Content Outline — microbiology and antimicrobial resistance NBME / FSMB (USMLE programme) · tier 0, exam blueprint / regulator
A 58-year-old smoker develops pneumonia with high fever, confusion, diarrhea and a sodium of 128 mEq/L. Sputum Gram stain shows neutrophils but no organisms. He had recently stayed in a hotel with an air-conditioning fault.
Which test confirms the diagnosis fastest?
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Silver stain of induced sputum
Used for Pneumocystis jirovecii, which presents with a dry cough and marked hypoxia in an immunocompromised patient.
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Routine blood agar culture
Legionella will not grow on standard media; it requires buffered charcoal yeast extract supplemented with cysteine and iron.
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Cold agglutinin titre
Points to Mycoplasma pneumoniae, a walking pneumonia in a younger patient without the hyponatremia and diarrhea.
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Urinary antigen test correct
Correct. Legionella pneumophila serogroup 1 is detected by urinary antigen within hours, and the organism is poorly seen on Gram stain because it stains faintly as a weak Gram-negative rod. Culture needs charcoal yeast extract with cysteine and iron.
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Acid-fast stain
For mycobacteria and Nocardia, neither of which fits an acute presentation over days with diarrhea and hyponatremia.
The point: Legionella triad worth memorising: pneumonia + diarrhea + hyponatremia, often with a raised transaminases and a relative bradycardia. Treat with a macrolide or a respiratory fluoroquinolone. Beta-lactams do not work, because it is intracellular.
Source: USMLE Content Outline — microbiology NBME / FSMB (USMLE programme) · tier 0, exam blueprint / regulator
The other sections of USMLE Step 1
Pathology and pathophysiology · Physiology · Pharmacology · Biochemistry and nutrition · Gross anatomy and embryology · Immunology · Histology and cell biology · Behavioural sciences · Genetics · Biostatistics and epidemiology
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